B Inclined treadmills and Galilean Invariance

  • B
  • Thread starter Thread starter A.T.
  • Start date Start date
A.T.
Science Advisor
Messages
12,936
Reaction score
3,982
TL;DR Summary
A Steve Mould video about inclined treadmills and Galilean Invariance:
This has been discussed many times on PF, and will likely come up again, so the video might come handy.



Previous threads:

 
  • Like
Likes haushofer and berkeman
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
This has been discussed many times on PF, and will likely come up again, so the video might come handy. Previous threads: https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/is-a-treadmill-incline-just-a-marketing-gimmick.937725/ https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/work-done-running-on-an-inclined-treadmill.927825/ https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/how-do-we-calculate-the-energy-we-used-to-do-something.1052162/
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...

Similar threads

Replies
131
Views
15K
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
9
Views
5K
Replies
46
Views
10K
Replies
53
Views
6K
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
137
Views
5K
Replies
3
Views
650
Back
Top