- #1
DaTario
- 1,039
- 35
Hi All,
I would like to know why in the infinite well problem, after having solved the time independent SE, we are not supposed to equal to zero the x derivative of the spatial part of the wave function at -L and L (2L being the total width). We only have to make it zero at the boundary.
Thanks a lot,
Best wishes,
DaTario
I would like to know why in the infinite well problem, after having solved the time independent SE, we are not supposed to equal to zero the x derivative of the spatial part of the wave function at -L and L (2L being the total width). We only have to make it zero at the boundary.
Thanks a lot,
Best wishes,
DaTario