Is Impulse the anti derivative of momentum?

In summary, the conversation discusses the relationship between impulse and momentum, with the question of whether impulse is an anti derivative of momentum. The conversation also explores the analogy between position, velocity, and acceleration and impulse, momentum, and force. Finally, it is concluded that impulse is the change in momentum.
  • #1
BreCheese
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Is Impulse an anti derivative of momentum? I know that momentum is an anti derivative of force (proof below), but I'm struggling with understanding the difference between momentum and impulse. My thoughts led me to think that both impulse and momentum are anti derivatives of force, but I'm not certain that impulse is an anti derivative of momentum.
Here is an analogy I've thought of:
If y=position, then y'=velocity, and y''=acceleration. so the anti derivative of acceleration is velocity, and the anti derivative of velocity is position.
So, similarly, I'm thinking that
If y=impulse, then y'=momentum, and y''=force. So the anti derivative of force is momentum, and the anti derivative of momentum is force. (is this right?)
Proof that an anti derivative of force if momentum:
p=mv ; read, "momentum is equal to mass multiplied by velocity"
F=ma ; a=dv/dt
F=m(dv/dt)
F=d/dt(mv) ; p=mv
F=d/dt(p) ; read, "Force is equal to the derivative of "p" (AKA: momentum) with respect to time." or in other words, "The derivative of momentum is force."

Thoughts about momentum being a derivative of impulse:
F=d/dt(p)
F(dt)=dp
FΔt=Δp
F=Δp/Δt ; Force (net) equals the change in momentum divided by the change in time.
Impulse (J) = the integral of Force (net) from time a to time b.
Impulse (J)= the integral of Δp/Δt from time a to time b.
The "Δp/Δt" reminds me of a similar formula for finding slope: y2-y1/x2-x1 or more simply, Δy/Δx.
My question is, is Δp/Δt the slope of the line tangent to some function? Is this aforementioned function momentum, or perhaps average momentum?
If so, then that is like saying Impulse (J)= the integral of momentum(average) from time a to time b. In other words, Impulse is the anti derivative of momentum.
Somehow I confused myself, and don't know if my conclusion is correct. I'm struggling with myself about my logic.
Any help/clarification would be appreciated,
Thanks.
 
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  • #2
Impulse is the change in momentum.

##J = \int_{t_1}^{t_2} Fdt = \int_{t_1}^{t_2} \frac{dp}{dt} dt = p(t_2) - p(t_1)##
 
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1. What is the definition of impulse?

Impulse is defined as the change in momentum of an object over a period of time.

2. Is impulse the same as momentum?

No, impulse and momentum are related but not the same. Momentum is the product of an object's mass and velocity, while impulse is the product of force and time.

3. How is impulse calculated?

Impulse is calculated by multiplying the force applied to an object by the time over which the force is applied. The equation is J = F * Δt, where J is impulse, F is force, and Δt is the change in time.

4. What is the relationship between impulse and anti-derivative of momentum?

The anti-derivative of momentum is equal to impulse. This means that the integral of momentum over a period of time is equal to the change in momentum, or impulse, over that same period of time.

5. Can impulse be negative?

Yes, impulse can be negative if the force applied to an object is in the opposite direction of its motion. This will result in a decrease in momentum, or a negative change in momentum, which is equivalent to a negative impulse.

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