- #1
Pithikos
- 55
- 1
I know this question has been out there many times. I read many threads already but I just didn't find a satisfactory answer. What some people say is that Leibniz notation is just a notation and not a fraction. Then we treat this notation as a fraction. But what's the reason to do it if a human can't understand it?
I study at the moment for my test and there is implicit differentiation, u-substitution etc and I can't learn them because I am stuck with this filthy notation.
say I have s(t)=10t2
its derivative is [tex]\frac{ds}{dt}[/tex]=20t
I can treat that as a fraction and get ds=20t*dt
But what the heck does that mean?? The change of s is 20t times the change of t?
I study at the moment for my test and there is implicit differentiation, u-substitution etc and I can't learn them because I am stuck with this filthy notation.
say I have s(t)=10t2
its derivative is [tex]\frac{ds}{dt}[/tex]=20t
I can treat that as a fraction and get ds=20t*dt
But what the heck does that mean?? The change of s is 20t times the change of t?