Odd fraction includes pi and infinity

In summary, the conversation discusses the concept of infinity and how it relates to numbers. The question of whether pi over infinity equals a repeating decimal is raised, but it is explained that dividing by infinity is not possible and makes no sense. Furthermore, the idea of infinitesimals is brought up, but it is clarified that they are not real numbers and are just concepts. The conversation also mentions different ways of defining 1/infinity and how it can be represented as either 0 or an infinitesimal. The conversation ends with a disagreement about the correct definition of an infinitesimal.
  • #1
firelavarock
5
0
does pi over infinity equal .00000...314159...?

if not please post opinions. :(
 
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  • #2
If you're only allowing real numbers, this operation is not allowed. If you're dealing with the extended real numbers, then pi/inf = 0. In fact, any real number over infinity is 0.
 
  • #3
Hi firelavarock! :smile:

It seems that you have some misconception about mathematics here:

firelavarock said:
does pi over infinity equal .00000...314159...?

First, infinity is not a number. Thus dividing through infinity is not possible and makes no sense. The question "what is 2/infinity" is the same thing as "what is 2/apple". Infinity and apple are not numbers and we can not calculate with them.

Secondly, if you write 0.00000... then the zeroes go on forever, it doesn't stop. So asking what the last digit of 0.000... is, is meaningless. There is no last digit.
Equivalently, 0.0000...314159... is meaningless, the sequence of 0's will go on forever, and there is simply no place to start with 314159...
 
  • #4
oh I thought that it was just above 3 infinitesimal
 
  • #5
firelavarock said:
oh I thought that it was just above 3 infinitesimal

Could you please explain what you mean by that? And where did you get the information for your first post above (where did that equation come from?). I'm about ready to call troll...
 
  • #6
firelavarock said:
oh I thought that it was just above 3 infinitesimal

There are no infinitesimals in (standard) mathematics. And even if you would define infinitesimals, then they wouldn't have decimal representations...
 
  • #7
I read that an infinitesimal is a decimal point followed by an infinite number of zeros and then a one. So I thought that that 3.14... infinitesimals might be a decimal point followed by an infinite number of zeros followed by 314... .

Can you more clearly explain what I did wrong? Thanks.
 
  • #8
firelavarock said:
I read that an infinitesimal is a decimal point followed by an infinite number of zeros and then a one.

I don't know where you read that, but that is wrong.
 
  • #9
firelavarock said:
I read that an infinitesimal is a decimal point followed by an infinite number of zeros and then a one. So I thought that that 3.14... infinitesimals might be a decimal point followed by an infinite number of zeros followed by 314... .

Can you more clearly explain what I did wrong? Thanks.

Please provide attribution for your original post (OP). Where did you read this, or did you just make it up?
 
  • #10
firelavarock said:
I read that an infinitesimal is a decimal point followed by an infinite number of zeros and then a one.

Obviously you are having trouble with the notion of infinite. An infinite string of zeroes means that the zeroes never end. So you can't ever put a 1 at the end... An infinitesimal is just like infinite, they're not numbers, they're concepts.
 
  • #11
in physics forums what is 1 over infinity I saw several posts that had infinitesimal as the answer.

so if pi is just above three. isn't it just above 3 over infinity?
or am I looking at it all the wrong way?:confused:
steppenwolf said:
1/infinity=infinitesimal

you were right about this, an infinitesimal is an infinite number of zeros after the decimal point with a one at the end, but of course there is no end but ah well!

infinitesimals are very interesting, archemedes used them to find the volume of the sphere, Newton also used them to work out velocity and related stuff.

now days it is used to explain bronwian motion and other nasty topics.

This is what I mean.
 
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  • #12
firelavarock said:
in physics forums what is 1 over infinity I saw several posts that had infinitesimal as the answer.
They would be using the extended real number line, which isn't the conventional system that most of us use.

firelavarock said:
so if pi is just above three. isn't it just above 3 over infinity?
That would be what you didn't see. If you saw 1 over infinite being referred to as an infinitesimal rather than zero, then you wouldn't be seeing 3 over infinite being an infinitesimal times 3. Again, an infinitesimal is just a concept.

firelavarock said:
or am I looking at it all the wrong way?:confused:
Yep.

edit: Just as the poster mentioned in your quote, an infinitesimal is an infinite string of zeroes followed by a 1. But when does infinite finish? It doesn't. "Putting the 1 at the end" is just a way of trying to say that the number is not 0 in the extended real number line. You could put any number you wish - a 2, 9, 10, or even pi - but this doesn't mean anything since you won't be putting that number there anyway. In other words, it's still an infinitesimal and it means that 1/infinite is no different to 2/infinite or pi/infinite.
But anyway, in all cases that you'll be dealing with, it's equal to zero.
 
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  • #13
I consider that post by steppenwolf to be entirely wrong. 1/infinity is not defined for real numbers. You may define it using the extended number line, but then 1/infinity =0, not some kind of (non-zero) infinitesimal.

Furthermore, saying that infinitesimals are an infinity of 0's and then a 1 is completely incorrect.
 
  • #14
firelavarock said:
steppenwolf said:
... an infinitesimal is an infinite number of zeros after the decimal point with a one at the end, but of course there is no end but ah well!

This is what I mean.
steppenwolf's statement contradicts itself -- if there is no end then there is no "one at the end". If you can't see that, then it's unlikely you can understand many of the explanations being given here and this whole discussion is pointless. I'm seeing zero progress towards understanding any of the replies here.

Thread locked.
 
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Related to Odd fraction includes pi and infinity

1. What is an odd fraction?

An odd fraction is a fraction where the numerator (top number) is an odd number and the denominator (bottom number) is an even number.

2. How can pi be included in a fraction?

Pi is a mathematical constant that represents the ratio of a circle's circumference to its diameter. It is a non-repeating, non-terminating decimal, but it can still be included in a fraction by using an approximation or by using an infinite series representation.

3. Can infinity be included in a fraction?

Infinity is not a number, it is a concept used to represent something without an end or limit. It cannot be included in a fraction as the denominator, but it can be used as a limit in calculus to represent a number that approaches infinity.

4. What is the significance of including pi and infinity in a fraction?

Including pi and infinity in a fraction can be used to represent complex or infinite values in a more compact and precise form. It is also used in higher level mathematics, such as calculus and number theory, to solve problems and prove theorems.

5. Are there any real-life applications of odd fractions that include pi and infinity?

Odd fractions that include pi and infinity are commonly used in physics and engineering to represent values such as electric and magnetic fields, heat flow, and resonance frequencies. They are also used in financial mathematics to calculate interest rates and compound growth.

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