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Riemann9471
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- Homework Statement
- In the case of the quantum harmonic oscillator in 3D , does the z-component of the angular momentum of a particle commute with the Hamiltonian? Does the fundamental state has a well defined value of L_z (variance = 0) ? If you said no , why? If you said yes , what is the value?
- Relevant Equations
- L_z = x p_y - y p_x (position and impulsion in x and y direction)
Homework Statement: In the case of the quantum harmonic oscillator in 3D , does the z-component of the angular momentum of a particle commute with the Hamiltonian? Does the fundamental state has a well defined value of L_z (variance = 0) ? If you said no , why? If you said yes , what is the value?
Homework Equations: L_z = x p_y - y p_x (position and impulsion in x and y direction)
So I was able to prove that the z component of angular momentum operator L_z = (x p_y - y p_x) (They are all operators ) commute with Hamiltonian, but now I struggle to explain why it implie that the variance of the operator L_z is zero. I could compute it and prove that , in the case of the harmonic oscillator in 3D , the variance is 0 by computing the expectation value of L_z and (L_z)^2 , but that would be a lot of work and I know that there's a simple explanation to why the variance of an operator that commute with the Hamiltonian is 0 , but I don't see it.
Homework Equations: L_z = x p_y - y p_x (position and impulsion in x and y direction)
So I was able to prove that the z component of angular momentum operator L_z = (x p_y - y p_x) (They are all operators ) commute with Hamiltonian, but now I struggle to explain why it implie that the variance of the operator L_z is zero. I could compute it and prove that , in the case of the harmonic oscillator in 3D , the variance is 0 by computing the expectation value of L_z and (L_z)^2 , but that would be a lot of work and I know that there's a simple explanation to why the variance of an operator that commute with the Hamiltonian is 0 , but I don't see it.
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