- #1
Nitram
- 7
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On page 298 of Shankar's 'Principles of Quantum Mechanics' the author makes the statement :
""In an arbitrary ##\Omega## basis, ##\psi(\omega)## need not be even or odd, even if ##| \psi \rangle ## is a parity eigenstate. ""
Can anyone show me how this is the case when in the X basis eigenfunctions either have even or odd parity?
""In an arbitrary ##\Omega## basis, ##\psi(\omega)## need not be even or odd, even if ##| \psi \rangle ## is a parity eigenstate. ""
Can anyone show me how this is the case when in the X basis eigenfunctions either have even or odd parity?