- #1
naele
- 202
- 1
I had a question about about the integration measure for the path integral after a unitary change of variables. First they consider a 4D spacetime lattice with volume [itex]L^4[/itex]. The measure is
[tex]
\mathcal{D}\phi = \prod_i d\phi(x_i)
[/tex]
They expand the field variables in a Fourier series [itex]\phi(x_i)=\frac{1}{V}\sum_n e^{-ik_n\cdot x_i}\phi(k_n)[/itex]. My questions are as follows:
1) Why do they consider the real and imaginary parts of [itex]\phi(k_n)[/itex] as independent variables?
2) Why do they re-write the measure as
[tex]
\mathcal{D}\phi(x)=\prod_{k_n^0>0}dRe\phi(k_n)dIm \phi(k_n)
[/tex]
I've never seen a measure re-written like that, I was wondering what allows them to do so.
There's already a thread about this here but I wasn't comfortable bumping a three year old thread, and the response didn't clear up my confusion.
I appreciate any help.
[tex]
\mathcal{D}\phi = \prod_i d\phi(x_i)
[/tex]
They expand the field variables in a Fourier series [itex]\phi(x_i)=\frac{1}{V}\sum_n e^{-ik_n\cdot x_i}\phi(k_n)[/itex]. My questions are as follows:
1) Why do they consider the real and imaginary parts of [itex]\phi(k_n)[/itex] as independent variables?
2) Why do they re-write the measure as
[tex]
\mathcal{D}\phi(x)=\prod_{k_n^0>0}dRe\phi(k_n)dIm \phi(k_n)
[/tex]
I've never seen a measure re-written like that, I was wondering what allows them to do so.
There's already a thread about this here but I wasn't comfortable bumping a three year old thread, and the response didn't clear up my confusion.
I appreciate any help.