- #1
keelejody
- 7
- 0
is there a direct proof that an idempotent matrix with inverse, can only be an identity matirx
i can't find about how id prove it
i know A^2=A and A^-1 exists
so too AB=BA
its obvious to say elements must be 1 or 0 but finding an overal rule isn't obvious to me
i can't find about how id prove it
i know A^2=A and A^-1 exists
so too AB=BA
its obvious to say elements must be 1 or 0 but finding an overal rule isn't obvious to me