- #1
PFuser1232
- 479
- 20
http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcII/ParaTangent.aspx
On this page the author makes it very clear that:
$$\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{\frac{dy}{dt}}{\frac{dx}{dt}}$$
provided ##\frac{dx}{dt} \neq 0##.
In example 4, ##\frac{dx}{dt} = -2t##, which is zero when ##t## is zero. In simplifying ##\frac{dy}{dx}## the author even divides the numerator and denominator by ##t## which is only possible if ##t \neq 0##.
This is all consistent with the requirement ##\frac{dx}{dt} \neq 0##.
The author then obtains an expression for the second derivative in terms of ##t##, plugs in zero, and finds out that the second derivative is zero at ##t = 0##.
How is this consistent with the assumption that ##\frac{dx}{dt} \neq 0##? What's going on here?
On this page the author makes it very clear that:
$$\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{\frac{dy}{dt}}{\frac{dx}{dt}}$$
provided ##\frac{dx}{dt} \neq 0##.
In example 4, ##\frac{dx}{dt} = -2t##, which is zero when ##t## is zero. In simplifying ##\frac{dy}{dx}## the author even divides the numerator and denominator by ##t## which is only possible if ##t \neq 0##.
This is all consistent with the requirement ##\frac{dx}{dt} \neq 0##.
The author then obtains an expression for the second derivative in terms of ##t##, plugs in zero, and finds out that the second derivative is zero at ##t = 0##.
How is this consistent with the assumption that ##\frac{dx}{dt} \neq 0##? What's going on here?