- #1
ELiT.Maxwell
- 8
- 0
why we assume that velocity decreases linearly in a spring (i.e. if one end is fixed, then velocity of a particle (of spring) at x from fixed =vx/l where v is the velocity of the free end) and why does it hold good too when the spring (linear mass density) is non uniform...
EDIT: spring has mass..
ref : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Effective_mass_(spring–mass_system)
EDIT: spring has mass..
ref : https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Effective_mass_(spring–mass_system)