't Hooft - Polyakov monopole at large distance

In summary, the 't Hooft-Polyakov monopole solution shows that the SO(3) gauge group is spontaneously broken down to U(1), where the unbroken mode behaves as the electromagnetic field. Adding a scalar field eliminates the need for a Dirac string, and at large distances, only the massless unbroken mode and scalar field remain. This leads to the appearance of a magnetic monopole at the core. However, the origin of fermion fields in this picture is not clear. By adding an isodoublet scalar field, it was shown that an SU(2) gauge theory can produce fermions, which cannot be achieved in an SO(3) gauge theory. This highlights the importance of
  • #1
karlzr
131
2
According to 't Hooft - Polyakov monopole solution, SO(3) is spontaneously broken down to U(1) and the unbroken mode works very well as the electromagnetic field. In this case we do not need dirac string but just some scalar field. At very large distance , the two massive gauge modes can be integrated out. So I guess the only degrees of freedom left is the massless unbroken mode and the scalar field. This looks like there is a magnetic monopole at the core. My question is :
Can we relate this picture with those of Dirac or Schwinger where magnetic monopole was effectively regarded as some fundamental fermion field? I mean, how do we interpret the origin of the fermion field from the original SO(3) group?
 
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  • #2
karlzr said:
According to 't Hooft - Polyakov monopole solution, SO(3) is spontaneously broken down to U(1) and the unbroken mode works very well as the electromagnetic field. In this case we do not need dirac string but just some scalar field. At very large distance , the two massive gauge modes can be integrated out. So I guess the only degrees of freedom left is the massless unbroken mode and the scalar field. This looks like there is a magnetic monopole at the core. My question is :
Can we relate this picture with those of Dirac or Schwinger where magnetic monopole was effectively regarded as some fundamental fermion field? I mean, how do we interpret the origin of the fermion field from the original SO(3) group?

The original `tHooft-Polyakov model which was based on the gauge group [itex]SO(3)[/itex] had no fermions in it. In 1976, Jackiw and Rebbi [1], Hasenfratz and `tHooft [2] have (independently) shown that if an isodoublet scalar field is added to `tHooft-Polyakov model (making it an [itex]SU(2)[/itex] gauge theory), then the bound state of monopole plus scalar has spin 1/2. This state has statistics of a fermion. Thus one find fermions in an [itex]SU(2)[/itex] gauge theory of Lorentz scalars and vectors. This result is the non-Abelian generalization of the well-known fact that the bound state of a Dirac monopole (with minimum magnetic charge) and a particle (with minimum electric charge) has angular momentum (1/2) stored in its electromagnetic field.
This demonstrates beautifully the fact that one cannot get spin-1/2 from SO(3). It can be understood if we compare the Dirac relationship between magnetic charge [itex]g[/itex] and the minimum electric charge [itex]Q_{min}[/itex](i.e., Dirac quantization condition):
[tex]g = \frac{ n }{ 2 Q_{ min } } ,[/tex]
with the string removal condition:
[tex]g = \frac{ n }{ e } .[/tex]
If [itex]e[/itex] is the minimum electric charge in the theory, then these conditions differ by a factor of 2 and allowed Dirac monopoles with [itex]g = ( 2n + 1 ) / 2 e[/itex] cannot have their strings removed. However, if doublet representations couple to the gauge fields, then their charge [itex]e / 2[/itex] becomes [itex]Q_{ min }[/itex] and both conditions are identical. These two possibilities distinguish between gauge theories with [itex]SO(3)[/itex] gauge group from those with [itex]SU(2)[/itex] gauge group (the global properties of the gauge group is essential for monopole solutions). So, only for [itex]SU(2)[/itex] gauge theory can all Dirac monopoles have their strings removed.

Sam

[1] Jackiw, R., and Rebbi, C. (1976b). Phys. Rev. Lett., 36, 1116.

[2] Hasenfratz, P., and `tHooft, G. (1976). Phys. Rev. Lett., 36, 1119.
 

1. What is the 't Hooft-Polyakov monopole at large distance?

The 't Hooft-Polyakov monopole at large distance is a topological soliton solution to the classical equations of motion in certain gauge theories. It is a magnetic monopole that arises in certain theories due to the non-trivial topology of the vacuum manifold.

2. What is the significance of the 't Hooft-Polyakov monopole?

The 't Hooft-Polyakov monopole is significant because it is one of the first known examples of a topological soliton in field theory. It also provides a simple model for understanding the phenomenon of confinement in quantum chromodynamics (QCD).

3. How is the 't Hooft-Polyakov monopole different from other monopole solutions?

The 't Hooft-Polyakov monopole is different from other monopole solutions in that it has finite energy and magnetic charge, while other solutions typically have infinite energy. It also has a well-defined size and shape at large distances, unlike other monopole solutions which tend to spread out indefinitely.

4. What is the mathematical description of the 't Hooft-Polyakov monopole?

The 't Hooft-Polyakov monopole can be described mathematically using the Higgs field and the gauge field in a specific gauge theory. It is a solution to the coupled differential equations known as the Bogomolny equations, which must be satisfied in order for the solution to have finite energy.

5. How has the 't Hooft-Polyakov monopole been observed in experiments?

The 't Hooft-Polyakov monopole has not been observed directly in experiments. However, similar structures have been observed in condensed matter systems such as superfluid helium and Bose-Einstein condensates. It also plays a role in string theory and its extensions, but these theories have not been experimentally confirmed.

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