jobsism
- 115
- 0
Factorial of 0=1 ?!
Can anyone please explain to me the proof that the factorial of 0 is 1?
Can anyone please explain to me the proof that the factorial of 0 is 1?
If you define (n+1)!=(n+1)*n!, 1!=1
JSuarez said:Please note that this function:
Is not defined for n = 0, so you can't really choose this...
JSuarez said:Please note that this function:
Is not defined for n = 0, so you can't really choose this...
The domain of a function is part of the definition of that function! You can't say "I define a function \mathbb{Z}\to \mathbb{Z} by writing some formula, but hey, for negative integers the formula doesn't make sense, oh well".arildno said:Sure it is defined.
I defined a general function from the integers into itself.
Then, it is a matter of exploration to find out which subset of the integers that can properly be regarded as the argument set. (The negatives are seen to be ruled out).
then you have specified the "base case" to be n=1. There has to be a base case (the formula (n+1)!=(n+1)*n alone does not make sense as definition), and it is part of the definition.(n+1)!=(n+1)*n!, 1!=1
is well-defined if and only if 0!=1.!:\mathbb{N}\cup\{0\}\to \mathbb{N}\cup\{0\}
defined by 1!=1 and, for all n\in\mathbb{N}\cup\{0\}, (n+1)!=(n+1)*n!
CompuChip said:That's a bit of an oversimplification blob.
Is (-1)! = 0!/0 = 1/0 then?
CompuChip said:That's a bit of an oversimplification blob.
Is (-1)! = 0!/0 = 1/0 then?
Gamma(-1) is a projective complex number; it doesn't "tend", it simply is projective infinity.Char. Limit said:Actually, if you look at the gamma function, \Gamma\left(-1\right) does tend to infinity