Velocity when falling into planet

In summary, the conversation discusses the problem of finding the velocity of a person falling into the center of a new planet with given density and radius. The solution is derived using energy conservation and takes into account the potential energy at the center of the planet, which is not zero. The final answer is obtained by equating the available potential energy to kinetic energy. The conversation also clarifies the difference between potential energy and potential and provides a formula for gravitational potential energy at the center of the planet.
  • #1
Alettix
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11

Homework Statement


Hi! I would need a little help with the following problem:
We have found a new planet with density ρ and radius R, and drill a hole to its center. Then accidentally, one person falls into the hole. What is his velocity when reaching the bottom (the center of the planet)?

Homework Equations


Force of gravity: F = G *M *m/22
Gravitational portential: E = (-) GMm/r
When inside a homogen sphere with mass, the gravitational forces of the sphere cancel --> only the mass inside the spehere will accelerate an object (if the object is outside that mass).
Kinetic translational energy: E = mv2/2
acceleration of simple harmonic oscillator: y''=(-) ω2*y
velocity of simpple harmonic oscillator: y'=ω*y

The Attempt at a Solution


I attempted to solve the problem with energy conservation. I thought that in point A on the surface the energy is E = GMm/r , where M is the mass of the planet and m of the person falling. Then, at the bottom the whole gravitational energy has been cocnverted to kinetic energy, thus:
v = (2GM/R)^(1/2)

However, this answer showed to be one factor 2^(1/2) wrong. My book proposes the following solution:

The acceleration of the object (person) is:
a= F/m = G M(r)/r2 = G/rr * 4πr3*ρ/3 = 4πGρ r/3
(because the mass affecting the object decreases as it falls)
From this equation it is visible that the force and acceleration of the object is proportional to its distance from the middle of the planet, where it is in equilibrium. This is just as in the case of simple harmonic motion (in this case with amplitude R). Thus, using y''=(-) ω2*y , we get:
ω = (4πGρ/3)^(1/2)
therefore the velocity at the middle of the planet (the maximal velocity in the equilibrium position) is:
v = ω*A = (4πGρ/3)^(1/2)*R = (4πR3Gρ/3R)^(1/2) = (MG/R)^(1/2)

This answer does, as previously mentioned, resemble the one obtained with energy conservation, but it differs a factor 2^(1/2). My question is: Why do I miss a factor of 2^(1/2) when using energy conservation? How should I modify my solution to obtain the correct answer with energy conservation?

Thank you! :)
 

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  • #2
What is the potential energy of something at the centre of the planet?
 
  • #3
PeroK said:
What is the potential energy of something at the centre of the planet?
Well, because it can be seen as an object inside a sphere with thickness/radius R, and because the gravitational forces on it cancel, I would say that the potential energy is zero. Am I wrong?
 
  • #4
Alettix said:
Well, because it can be seen as an object inside a sphere with thickness/radius R, and because the gravitational forces on it cancel, I would say that the potential energy is zero. Am I wrong?

Potential is only 0 at a very large distance from a massive body. Potential does not cancel out like force. If you are, say, half way between two identical masses, then the force is 0, but the potential is twice what it is for each mass.

At the centre of a sphere, the potential is the integral over all points of the sphere. And that won't be 0.
 
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  • #5
PeroK said:
Potential is only 0 at a very large distance from a massive body. Potential does not cancel out like force. If you are, say, half way between two identical masses, then the force is 0, but the potential is twice what it is for each mass.

At the centre of a sphere, the potential is the integral over all points of the sphere. And that won't be 0.

Oh, that was a useful example. Thank you! :)

So how can I take the integral over all points of the planet? Should I divide it into thin spheres?
 
  • #6
Alettix said:
Oh, that was a useful example. Thank you! :)

So how can I take the integral over all points of the planet? Should I divide it into thin spheres?

Yes.
 
  • #7
@Alettix , note also that you ignored the sign of the potential at the surface. That should have been a clue.
 
  • #8
PeroK said:
Yes.

Does EP = 2πgρMR2 sound right? If I have calculated properly, it gives the right value for v.
 
  • #9
haruspex said:
@Alettix , note also that you ignored the sign of the potential at the surface. That should have been a clue.

I thought about it like: Change in energy = final potential - potential at the surface = 0 - (-GmM/R) = GmM/R
so that's why the sign dropped. Now I do however know that the final potential in the middle is not zero.

But do you have any other suggestion of how the sign should be handled? I do struggel a bit with it sometimes.
 
  • #10
Alettix said:
I thought about it like: Change in energy = final potential - potential at the surface = 0 - (-GmM/R) = GmM/R
That would give you the increase in GPE, so a negative change in KE.
 
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  • #11
Alettix said:
But do you have any other suggestion of how the sign should be handled? I do struggel a bit with it sometimes.

Also, you know that the potential is 0 at "infinity" and that is greater than at the surface. So, you don't fall off the planet!

If potential were 0 at the centre, then likewise you wouldn't fall into the planet.
 
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  • #12
Alettix said:
How should I modify my solution to obtain the correct answer with energy conservation?
1. Set '0' potential energy at the center of the planet.
2. Calculate the energy needed to raise mass 'm' from the center to the surface. This is your available potential energy.
3. Equate this potential energy to kinetic energy of 'm' and you'll get the correct answer.
 
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  • #13
Thank you very much everybody, I think I got it now! :)

The only thing I still wonder is if any of you know if -2πgρMR2 is the correct potantial in the middle of the planet (if the potential at the surface is -GMm/R)?
 
  • #14
Alettix said:
Thank you very much everybody, I think I got it now! :)

The only thing I still wonder is if any of you know if -2πgρMR2 is the correct potantial in the middle of the planet (if the potential at the surface is -GMm/R)?
Nearly right, but to be clear these are gravitational potential energies, not potentials. Potential is independent of the test mass, like voltage is independent of the test charge.
 
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  • #15
Alettix said:
Thank you very much everybody, I think I got it now! :)

The only thing I still wonder is if any of you know if -2πgρMR2 is the correct potantial in the middle of the planet (if the potential at the surface is -GMm/R)?

Since you know the answer to the original problem (KE at the centre of the planet), you can deduce the PE at the centre from that. In any case, you should be able to simplify the expression you have so that it looks similar to the one for the surface.
 
  • #16
PeroK said:
Since you know the answer to the original problem (KE at the centre of the planet), you can deduce the PE at the centre from that. In any case, you should be able to simplify the expression you have so that it looks similar to the one for the surface.

Yes, I am able to to that. My orginal expression was E = -2πGmR2ρ (there were some typos with the capital letters), which can be simplified to:
E = - 3/2 * MmG/R if I'm not wrong. :)
 
  • #17
Alettix said:
Yes, I am able to to that. My orginal expression was E = -2πGmR2ρ (there were some typos with the capital letters), which can be simplified to:
E = - 3/2 * MmG/R if I'm not wrong. :)

You're not wrong!
 
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1. What is the velocity of an object falling into a planet?

The velocity of an object falling into a planet depends on several factors, such as the mass and size of the planet, and the starting altitude of the object. However, in general, the velocity will increase as the object gets closer to the planet's surface due to the acceleration of gravity.

2. How does the velocity of an object falling into a planet change with distance?

As an object falls into a planet, its velocity will increase as it gets closer to the surface. This is because the gravitational force between the object and the planet increases as the distance between them decreases. However, once the object reaches the planet's surface, its velocity will remain constant.

3. Can the velocity of an object falling into a planet be calculated?

Yes, the velocity of an object falling into a planet can be calculated using the formula v = √(2GM/r), where G is the gravitational constant, M is the mass of the planet, and r is the distance between the object and the planet's center of mass. This formula is known as the escape velocity equation.

4. How does air resistance affect the velocity of an object falling into a planet?

Air resistance can have a significant impact on the velocity of an object falling into a planet, especially if the planet has a dense atmosphere. In this case, the object will experience a force from air resistance that will oppose its motion and slow it down. As a result, the object's final velocity upon impact with the planet's surface will be lower than the calculated escape velocity.

5. Is the velocity of an object falling into a planet the same for all objects?

No, the velocity of an object falling into a planet will vary depending on the mass and size of the object, as well as the mass and size of the planet. For example, a larger and more massive object will have a higher escape velocity compared to a smaller and less massive object. Additionally, the starting altitude of the object will also affect its final velocity upon impact with the planet's surface.

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