- #1
etotheipi
- Homework Statement
- See below
- Relevant Equations
- N/A
Here I disagreed with my professor's solution, so I'd like to check with you guys. Each B4+ ion in a perovskite ABO3 structure is displaced by ##0.2 \mathring{A}## parallel to the ##c##-axis w.r.t. the centroid of the unit cell, after the cubic-tetragonal phase transition below the Curie temperature. We're asked to determine the voltage developed across a sample of thickness ##0.1 \text{mm}##, given that ##\kappa = 1000##, and assuming that the unit cell dimensions of the tetragonal phase are approximately the same as in the cubic phase, ##4.0 \mathring{A} \times 4.0 \mathring{A} \times 4.0 \mathring{A}##.
The dipole moment per unit volume is then just ##P_z = [(4e) \times 0.2 \mathring{A}]/[4.0 \mathring{A}]^3 = 0.2 \text{ Cm}^{-2}##, and then since ##\vec{P} = \chi \varepsilon_0 \vec{E} = \varepsilon_0 (\kappa -1)\vec{E}##$$V = - E_z \Delta z = -\frac{P_z}{\varepsilon_0 (\kappa - 1)} \Delta z \approx -2300 \text{ V}$$i.e. the potential of the lower face w.r.t. the top face is approximately ##2300 \text{ V}##. My professor, however, says that the correct equation should be$$V = -\frac{P_z}{\varepsilon_0 \kappa} \Delta z$$This doesn't make a difference to the answer, given that ##\kappa \gg 1##, but conceptually I found that slightly odd, and haven't been able to figure out why the lower equation would be correct. I would like to see if anyone agrees with me, though!
The dipole moment per unit volume is then just ##P_z = [(4e) \times 0.2 \mathring{A}]/[4.0 \mathring{A}]^3 = 0.2 \text{ Cm}^{-2}##, and then since ##\vec{P} = \chi \varepsilon_0 \vec{E} = \varepsilon_0 (\kappa -1)\vec{E}##$$V = - E_z \Delta z = -\frac{P_z}{\varepsilon_0 (\kappa - 1)} \Delta z \approx -2300 \text{ V}$$i.e. the potential of the lower face w.r.t. the top face is approximately ##2300 \text{ V}##. My professor, however, says that the correct equation should be$$V = -\frac{P_z}{\varepsilon_0 \kappa} \Delta z$$This doesn't make a difference to the answer, given that ##\kappa \gg 1##, but conceptually I found that slightly odd, and haven't been able to figure out why the lower equation would be correct. I would like to see if anyone agrees with me, though!
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