okay...when I assumed a1 not equal to a2 which i wasnt doing originally, i got 2T-m_2*g=-m_2*a_2 and T=m_1*a_1
sbsitiuting and shifting things around I got:
a_1=(m_2*g-m_2*a_2)/(2*m_1)
does thi seem right?
should my anyswer depend on a_2 or are they assumed to be the same, therefor...
So the problem I am working on is: In the figure, find an expression for the acceleration of (assume that the table is frictionless). I have attached the figure of reference.
I have so far tried to solve by first looking at m2 to get:
2T-m_2*g=m_2*a so T= (m_2*(a+g))/2...
So for the top F=mu_s*m_top*g
and for the bottom F=(-mu_s*(m_top+m_bot)*g)-(mu_k*(m_top+m_bot)*g)?
I am still pretty confused about the equations I am supposed to use. Physics is pretty much my worst subject so I am pretty clueless most of the time.
So the max force would be f_s=mu_s*N. So do you use the N of the whol system so N=(m_top+m_bot)*g or just the top block N=m_top*g?
So when we get the F we just set it equal to F=ma and solve for a? Do I use the combined masses for m?
Was I right originally in saying that I plug the a into...
Well I keep trying to go about it by solving for acceleration but that isn't getting me anywhere. So what I have is:
Top: F_x=m_top*a+mu_s*m_top*g
Bottom: F_x=-mu_s*(m_top+m_bot)*g
then do I set them equal and solve for a?
Then I have been trying to plug a into the eqn...