Ok, there are a couple of other threads about this, but they don't seem to answer my question.
If I take the double derivative of 1/r, I'll get 2/r^3, but if I take the laplacian, I get something different. Why?
Namely:
\frac{d}{dr}\frac{d}{dr}(\frac{1}{r}) = \frac{d}{dr}...