i got π/4 + ( ( -1)n-1 ) cos(nx) ) /π*n2+( (-1)nsin(nx) ) /n
with the an=(-1)n-1) / (πn2) because during the an calculation i get an=( cos(nπ)-cos(n0) ) / (πn2) and cos1π=-1 and cos(0)=cos2π=1 so -1n=+1 for n=even and =-1 for n=odd
and bn= - ( (-1)n ) / n from ( -nπcos(nπ) )/πn2
I'm still...
thanks BvU.
I looked over it and noticed some mistakes, so.. an=( (-1)^n -1) / (π * n^2)
and bn= - ( (-1)^n ) / n
i see the π/2 getting rid of cosine but how do i achieve the π/4 = 1 - 1/3 + 1/5 ... using suitable values of x.
do i set x=π/4 then get 1 for ??
http://imageshack.com/a/img911/5796/jhLmo0.jpg
http://imageshack.com/a/img673/1972/xQeDHn.jpg
x=pi gives too high so i must have made a mistake on calculation of ceoffiscients but i don't see it
< Mentor Note -- thread moved to HH from the technical forums, so no HH Template is shown >[/color]
hi I've got a problem that I've partially worked but don't understand the next part/have made a mistake?
f(x)=0 for -π<x<0 and f(x)=x for 0≤x≤π
i got a0=π/4 and an=0 and bn=0 if n is even and...