Maybe i should also say that i am choosing between engineering degree in the industry, or taking the physics one and staying in academia, then the salary is lower.
It's so haaard :( I mean, with the engineering-masters i'll have a way higher salary and the stability a full time employment provides, but the physics one seems more fun :(
Maybe it's easier if you model the problem as one of "one" variable. If you write it as a function y of x, then it is y=x-2\sqrt{x}+1, do you know what the tangent if this is at an arbitrary point? Try to look at the equation for the tangentplane of a \textbf{R}^3-function. The tangent-plane for...
Hey there, i guess i just need to ventilate some and see what people think about my situation and about the choices i have.
First of all i must say that i am from Sweden and therefore i have conditions that few other people have. I get my education for free and i am free to chose whatever field...
I see your point. I am taking this class in addition to the classes i currently have, i am majoring in an electrical engineering programme with emphasis on physics and i maybe want to take a masters in physics here that's given to the physics students. With that said i don't have the same...
Guys the mystery has just solved itself.. as i said in my OP, i was nudged to believe that the answer was 1/2... the source that told me this just clarified that it was 1/2 hartree units.. which translates to 13.6eV. The problem is solved, thank you guys for your help!
The way i'd like to see it be is that the potential at the inner most radious for the electron (ground state) should be 0 because it can't jump back to a lower state but i guess this is not the case.. :/
For this i get \frac{1}{a_0}=1.92*10^{10} which if i later also add in the rest of the equation for the potential energy gives me that the expected value for the potential energy should be -4.45*10^{-18} which is wrong i guess.. :/
I still don't get it quite right it looks like. \langle\psi|V(r)|\psi\rangle=\langle\psi|-\frac{k}{r}|\psi\rangle=\frac{-k4\pi}{\pi a_0}\int_{0}^{\infty} re^{\frac{2r}{a_0}} dr which i get to become...