Sorry mate but both your solutions are wrong. You can easily prove this if you try to find P(2,5) or P(1,5) or whatever you want...
Does anybody know if such a formula even exists?
That's not correct.
Let's suppose we toss a coin 3 times (N = 3) and we want a run of exactly 2 heads (L = 2). Then the combinations that include runs of HH are only two: THH and HHT
The total combinations are 2N=3=8
So, P(2,3) = 2/8 = 1/4
Your answer gives 2-N= 1/8
What is the probability that a run of exactly L consecutive heads (or tails) appears in N independent tosses of a coin?
Please help me with this one... I 've searched everywhere but I can't find a general answer, for example P(L,N) = ...
Hi,
I know that the expectation E(Sn) for a one-dimensional simple random walk is zero. But what about the variance?
I read in http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Random_walk#One-dimensional_random_walk" that the variance should be E(Sn2) = n.
Why is that? Can anyone prove it?
Thank you...
I am sure that it's a stupid question that has allready been answered in the past, but I couldn't find the solution anywhere. Well I want to know why the following attached equality is not true: