OMG. I just realized that I was making this problem harder than it is.
I can just say that [tex]\underline{S}(f, P^*)-[tex]\overline{S}(f, P^*)=0, which is less than epsilon.
This is my first time posting & I am not familiar with how to get all the correct math symbols or how to use Latex, so I did the best I could.
Homework Statement
Suppose f is bounded on [a,b] and there is a partition P* of [a,b] for which S(f,P*)=S(f,P*). Is f Riemann integrable on...
I did what snipez90 said, but I got stuck. I know that it is necessary to apply the Mean Value Theorem, but I don't really understand how. Maybe you can figure out how the MVT can be applied.