From De Broglie's 1924 paper, page 10 (445 of the journal):
Taken from this PDF version: https://www.pwein.at/physics/Lectures/Famous-Papers/Phil-Mag-47-446-1924.pdf
I learned in school that the phase velocity was c^2/v, and I have taken it as fact without trying to understand why yet.
I have heard that the phase velocity of matter waves can be represented as c^2/v. But if the wavelength of these matter waves goes to zero as momentum approaches infinity and v approaches c, then does this mean that the frequency of the matter waves approaches infinity, to give the matter wave a...