OK, I still don't like this. In the linked post, you state the equality between
$$\frac{\partial (f\circ g)(x)}{\partial x_i}=\sum_{j=1}^m\frac{\partial f(g(x))}{\partial g_j}\frac{\partial g_j(x)}{\partial x_i},$$
and
$$(f\circ g)_{,i}(x)=f_{,j}(g(x))g_{j,i}(x)$$
which I disagree with, as...