Thanks Shyan!
In my opinion,
if ##\vec v=\vec v(x,y,z,t)##, then according to ##T=\frac{1}{2} mv^2##,we have
$$\frac{\partial T}{\partial x}=mv\frac{\partial v}{\partial t}$$.
And in this case, ##\frac{\partial T}{\partial x}## is not zero.
I mean the T might depend explicitly on ##t##.