Recent content by jwhite2531

Thank you very much Jackmell, really appreciate it.

Homework Statement ∫dθ/(1+βcosθ)^2 ; -1<β<1 θ=0 to 2pi Homework Equations The Attempt at a Solution attempt solution: 1) make substitution: dθ=dz/iz Z=e^iθ cosθ=1/2(Z+1/z) 2) substitute: 1/i*dz/(β+Z(1+(β^2)/2)+((3βZ^2)/2)+((β^2)Z^3)/4)+((β^2))/4Z) 3) Next ...

Thank you.

Thank you very much, here is my final proof :) - ker(L) is nonempty since Lu=0, the zero vector of V, is in ker(L) - if u belongs ker(L) and a is a scalar, then L(au)=aL(U)=a.0=0, therefore au belongs ker(L) -if u1, u2 belong ker(L), then L(u1+u2)=Lu1+Lu2=0+0=0, so u1+u2 belongs ker(L) hence...

ok,from the definition ker(L) is a vector subspace of V (I guess). but is this definition enough for the proof?

well, (it says here) a subspace of a vector space is a nonempty subset that satisfies the requirements for a vector space.

you are right, but unfortunately I don't have many things to show. We have done with entire linear algebra in two weeks and now I am supposed to finish this assignment. It just does not settle this fast in my mind,I am trying though. That's why I need some help. Thanks again

Hi all, I need some proofs for my assignment, the question is like below: Let L be a linear map from the vector space V to the vector space W. • ker(L) is a subset of V which consists of vectors u such that Lu = 0. Is ker(L) a vector subspace of V ? Give a proof. • Let S be a subset of...