Recent content by land

let me rephrase.. how can it be that there are no stationary states in a potential well? i think if i can understand that, the rest of it will be easy.

Hm.. could it be that I'm not explaining the problem clearly enough? Let me know if so. I tried to draw something to post here but it's sort of confusing. It's just a semi-infinite square well, as nearly as I can tell.. but I really think I'm doing this wrong.

Thanks! :)

OK... could really use some help on this one. I thought if I started with the individual wave equations, I could figure it out. So for what I'm calling Region I, 0<x<b, I came up with \Psi=C_I^+cos[\sqrt{2m(V_0-\epsilon)}(\frac{x}{\hbar}})]+C_I^-sin[\sqrt{2m(V_0-\epsilon)}(\frac{x}{\hbar})]...

Homework Statement The potential energy of a particle is defined by the piecewise function: V(x) = infinity if x<0 V(x) = -V0 if 0<x<b V(x) = 0 if x>b So it's like a square well with one side being infinite. I need to find the condition on V0 and b so that no bound stationary states exist...

Simple question regarding spin :) Homework Statement An electron is in spin state (superposition of spin eigenstates) given by the wavefunction: \chi=\frac{1}{3}\chi_+ + \frac{2\sqrt{2}}{3}\chi_-. I need to find the probabilities that a measurement would find the electron with spin up or...

Anybody? This should be a straightforward problem, which is what makes it so frustrating :(

Anybody have a clue how to go about this? I feel like I should be able to do this but I just can't. I've looked at it for hours and don't know how to begin.. nothing I've tried works. sigh. thanks for the help :)

OK. I tried to go back through and put in the terms you were talking about, and I've gotten something.. but I'm still confused. I've gotten down to \frac{i}{2\sqrt{2m\omega}}<\psi_0 + \psi_1 | \sqrt{\hbar\omega}\psi_0 - \sqrt{\hbar\omega}\psi_1 - \sqrt{2\hbar\omega}\psi_2>. <\psi_0 | \psi_0>...

I did mean to put brackets around it. I'm not sure why I didn't. I have trouble getting LaTeX to display things correctly sometimes. Edit: nevermind, I'm an idiot and figured out what you were talking about. See next post for confusion.

There's no way that expectation value could be zero, right? because <\psi_n | \psi_{n+1}> = 0, I think.. so all that stuff inside the <> would be zero. No?

OK, I have that a particle of mass m is moving on the surface of a sphere of radius R but is otherwise free. The Hamiltonian is H = L^2/(2mR^2). All I have to do is find the energies and wavefunctions of the stationary states... this seems like it should be really easy, but I am struggling...

I'm given that there is a harmonic oscillator in a state that is a superposition of the ground and first excited stationary states given by \psi = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\abs{\psi_0(x,t) + \psi_1(x,t)}, where \psi_0 = \psi_0(x)e^{\frac{-iE_0t}{\hbar}} and \psi_1 = \psi_1(x)e^{\frac{-iE_1t}{\hbar}}...

What integral, V'' \Psi \Psi * from -infinity to infinity?

Ah.. the F = -dV/dt. and the dx/dt is still there I suppose..