Recent content by maple

Thanks Daniel (also for your help for that maths Q). Its not just special functions… I mean to give you an idea of what I’m having difficulty with: simple things like how quantum numbers are interdepent… fiddling with vector idenites in spherical polars to get equations which are a pain to...

Hi A huge problem I'm finding with my study of QM is that its shrouded in maths and I'm becoming really bogged down in trying to understand things like hermite polynomials, assosiated legendre polymials, bessels and laguerres equations and so on. In the process, I feel that I'm loosing sight...

thanks daniel, can you actually spell all this out? I'm not sure how to put what you said into practice. Many thanks.

Hi, this is a pretty trivial question. would be grateful if someone could answer it for me. in spherical polars x=rcos(theta)sin(PHI) and so on for y, and z Now, why is d/dr= dx/dr*d/dx + dy/dr*d/dy+ dz/dr*d/dz where everything is partial. dx/dr, dy/dr and dz/dr at partial...

Aha! It all makes sense now; quite interesting stuff. Thanks!

Thanks Pat, that really cleared somethings up. I solved the TISE again, and I still get that the eigenfunctions are simply K*sin(n*pi*x/a) where K is a normalised constant as before, applying the boundary condition that you mention alongside the condition that the gradient of the...

Thanks Seratend, although, the well goes from (0 to a): i don't think there are any cos terms that make up the enegy-eigenfns. so if they form a basis, you can represent any function as linear combinations of these eigenfunctions. Fourier series seems to suggest that you cannot express...

I posted this in the general maths section but i think it'll fit better over here. Anyways... In quantum mechanics, a free particle in an infinite potential well has the wave function (ie. overlap <x/phi>). Its eigenfunctions take the form: (2/a)^1/2 * sin(n*pi*x/a), n is ofcourse an...

In quantum mechanics, a free particle in an infinite potential well has the wave function (ie. overlap <x/phi>). Its eigenfunctions take the form: (2/a)^1/2 * sin(n*pi*x/a), n is ofcourse an integer. My question is that do all eigenfunctions form a basis? And if so how can you represent an...