Thank you very much for this lucid explanation, I wish my textbook was that clear!
I still wonder about the proof and the practical usefullness of the theorem though!
PS: I did not mention \phi in my previous post as I thought Steve suggested I should look at it in a simplified way; Where...
Hmmm if I'd simplify the case and substitute the set of functions by a function that maps \mathbb{N} to \mathbb{N}, and the function inputs f & g by elements from \mathbb{N}... it would basically say something very trivial; a function maps each input to one output, so if the input equals the...
Thank you very much, that certainly helped!
So the corrected line of thinking should be; If there are two functions in a set of functions which return the same results for input restricted up to n, then the set of functions yield the same result on either f(n) or g(n).
I think I get the...
Hi all,
Im doing some self study in set theory, but got kind of stuck with a proof my textbook gives about the so called recursion theorem:
What I get from this is:
Let \phi be a function that maps the result of a function that maps natural numbers to the set a, to the result of...
Homework Statement
I'm following an online course on linear algebra where matrix elimination was explained. They showed this for a 3x3 matrix, I wanted to test this with a 2x2 matrix but somehow managed to do something wrong..
I have two equations with 2 unknowns:
2x - y = 0
-x + 2y = 3...
Thanks for clearing that up! So this only holds when you use the same lineair combination for both origins? I got confused because fx both 1/2, 1/2 and 3/4, 1/4 would be valid affine combinations...
Hello there,
I have trouble understanding why the coefficients in an affine combination should add up to 1; From the wikipedia article (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Affine_space#Informal_descriptions) it's mentioned that an affine space does not have an origin, so for an translation different...