Recent content by michaeltorrent

maybe it won't be directly related to qm, but somethin than use qm. i think qm is just like foundation knowledge for u to learn something more. so you get job based on that "something" more. e.g. semiconductor technology...??

from statistics, no one dies while smoking. unless you smoke in the middle of traffic.

typical drift velocity of electrons in a small circuit is a few mm per second. while their rms speed due to thermal energy is several thousands meter per second.

i have a question, is it possible for us to run very high oscillating current in an antenna as high as 5x10^14 hz? if we can, then it will produced visible light from the antenna.??

is there jobs on quantum information?? does anyone know the career potential for someone who takes phd on quantum information? i mean a kind of job other than research assisstant in university?

i saw people people from nuclear engineering can switch to engineering jobs pretty easy. maybe u have to take phd on other potential fields.

wow... if you can finish calculus yourself i think you can do more challenging things than just engineering. maybe physics is more suitable. at later stage you can switch to engineering from physics, for example doing some engineering research on semiconductor, making use of your solid state...

is [b,b*]=1-ndown-nup ? then we have bb* - b*b = 1 -ndown - nup so bb* = b*b + 1 - ndown - nup and b|0> = 0 so b*b terms dissapear?

for giant magnetoresistance with 3 layers suppose Fe-Cu-Fe, and suppose we take room temperature (300K) and moderate layer thickness (eg Fe = 30 Amstrong, Cu = 20 Amstrong), what is the typical magnetoresistance we get? I mean the maximum resistance (in ohms) when the magnetization of the FM...

thanks. i am new here, please excuse my latex typing if there is error, i am not used to this: we have: |\psi>=\prod_k [u_k + v_k b*]|0> i want to prove <\psi |\psi>=1 i do the product but still cannot get rid of b and b* terms. is there an algerbraic trick there? thanks. btw...

hi i have superconductor question, need someone familiar with this field. does anyone know how to prove normalization of bcs equation? <psi|psi>=1 given uk^2 + vk^2 =1 i went through the Heisenberg algebra but still can't solve it. any guide?