For the first integration then would v = \frac{dg}{d \phi} and du = (\frac{df}{d\phi})^*?
[edit] Well I think I solved it, but it feels wrong. I got -\int f^*(\frac{d^2}{d \phi^2}) g d\phi It the initial integral but minus. Can that be right?
I am given Q = \frac{d^2}{d \phi^2} And am asked to prove if eigenvalues are real. In order to do that I need to determine if Q is in fact a Hermitian operator. So I am at: \int f*(\frac{d^2}{d \phi^2})g d\phi This is integrated over 0 to 2 pi.
OK, that somewhat helps but if I have \int \frac{d^2}{d \phi^2}d \phi how do I evaluate that? It's been a while since calc obviously. It's the 2nd derivative thing that's throwing me. Hopefully I am not tiring you guys, cause I am certainly getting bleary. Thanks for your help this far. I am...
First post so please go easy on me, here goes:
I have looked over the basic definition of what is a Hermitian operator such as: <f|Qf> = <Qf|f> but I still am unclear what to do with this definition if I am asked prove whether or not i(d/dx) or (d^2)/(dx^2) for example are Hermitian...