Suppose X, Y, Z are sets. If X ~ Y and Y ~ Z, prove that X ~ Z.
My work on the proof so far is:
Suppose X, Y, Z are sets. Let X ~ Y and Y ~ Z. By equivalence, there are functions f and g such that f: X → Y where f is 1-1 and onto, and g: Y → Z where g is 1-1 and onto.
So now I have to...