I'll post again in another day after taking some time to reckon this out. so the wave function is zero at the z=0 plane, and with an s orbital the wave funtion will be symmetric about the origin but at the origin (or nucleus point) this wave function will be zero? like in the sense of sin(x)/x...
mmmm, that does clash w/ my preconceived notion of a wave function as describing ...well... a waving motion or oscillation of position over time. So, is there perhaps an imaginary valued probabilty of finding a particle on the plane between lobes - ( e^1.57i or e^.785i) - or am I making this...
I read the following on a page about atomic orbitals (p and d orbitals in particular) which seem 2 me like 3d lemniscates (figures 8 or ∞ rotated about an axis of symmetry to form tear drop pairs or toruses.
http://www.chemguide.co.uk/atoms/properties/atomorbs.html
Taking chemistry further...