Recent content by QUANTUMQ

so is that to say that a wavefunction does not collapse, but just gives the appearence of a collapse

i did ask the question "since two particles can be entangled, are the wave functions of these two particles entangled before they collapse? and is a wave function collapse perminent?" but it got lost in the philosophy discussion, so is there any answers on the original question?

why is there seemingly a lack of interest in the physics world into what subjectivity is when it seems to play a very important role?

since two particles can be entangled, are the wave functions of these two particles entangled before they collapse? and is a wave function collapse perminent?

thanks for all the replies theve been ,nice to see the different oppinions. my questions were in the framework of CI but i would like to hear some of the oppositions to the CI. when reading werner Heisenbergs `physics & philosophy` he dedicated an entire chapter to the subject but ultimatly...

dave answered it perfectly,photons ARE massless, gravity curves space-time EVERYTHING mass (any mass) energy (any energy) is subsequently effected.

does the idea of how gravity works through gravitons contradict einsteins general relativity? the idea of a particle exchange (gravitons) does don't seem to agree with space-time fabric. can they agree or is only one right? if so which do you think?

what is it that actually collapses a wave function, an observer? what constitutes an observer? also is it true that everything has a wave function, because if it does who collapsed the universes wave function some may say wave function collapse only works on the quantum level but the universe...