I'm following this tutorial
I noticed that he provided the boundary values in FEMM but he didn't provide the Laplace equation ##\dfrac{\partial^2 V}{\partial x^2} + \dfrac{\partial^2 V}{\partial y^2} = 0## for the field but it is still corrected simulated?
or is it not necessary to provide it...
I know what ##\Phi## and B are, I think they are the magnetic flux and its density. I think ##\mu## is the permeability. But I dont know what ##R_c## and MMF are and how are these formulas deduced.
I think ##\dfrac{\partial A_z}{\partial z} = 0## as suggested in (28), it is also suggested in the expression ##A_z(x,y;t)## as it does not contain ##z##, and will make the second order derivative to 0 in the above case.
But I still don't fully understand the physical meaning of it.
Thank you, I see.
But how does ##(A_x, A_y) = (\mu^{-1} \dfrac{\partial^2 A_z}{\partial x\partial z}, \mu^{-1} \dfrac{\partial^2 A_z}{\partial y\partial z})## turn into (0, 0) or are they simply neglected since we're considering the z axis? or was my calculation wrong?
I think grad before ##A_z## seems redundant here, as ##\text{curl}(\text{curl} A)_z=-(\dfrac{\partial^2 A_z}{\partial x^2}+\dfrac{\partial^2 A_z}{\partial y^2})## here, so as long as ##\dfrac{\partial^2 A_z}{\partial z^2}=0## it is much more understandable, but I couldn’t find evidence of it and...
thank you.
No matter how I calculate (calculating directly or using ##\nabla\times (\nabla\times A)=\nabla(\nabla\cdot A)-\nabla^2 A##), it is
$$\text{curl}(\text{curl} A) = (\dfrac{\partial^2 A_z}{\partial x\partial z}, \dfrac{\partial^2 A_z}{\partial y\partial z}, -\dfrac{\partial^2...
In (23), are grad and div some kind of scalar operators comparing to ##\nabla## and ##\nabla\times##?
because tbh I dont know how ##\text{curl}(\mu^{-1}\text{curl}\textbf{A})## turns into ##\text{div}\mu^{-1}\text{grad}A_z## even given ##A=(0,0,A_z)^T##.
tbh I don't really get it. First, Is...