Recent content by RikaWolf

Well then, assuming v= {b1...bn}, u={a1...an} there could still be a (u,v)=0 when v= {-an...-a} and u isn't 0

I need help to know if I'm on the right track: Prove/Disprove the following: Let u ∈ V . If (u, v) = 0 for every v ∈ V such that v ≠ u, then u = 0. (V is a vector-space) I think I need to disprove by using v = 0, however I'm not sure.