Recent content by robnybod

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Thank you! so according to that it would go to zero, correct? because than f=f(1-1/P(n)) and f goes away, so you're left with -1/P(infinity)=0, which checks

Ok here's the problem: Using wolfram the first 100 results are these heres a plot of a couple points As you can see it doesn't seem to be approaching exactly zero, even though its very similar to 1/x (exactly the same if you replace Pn with just n) Is there any way to prove whether this...