Thank you!
so according to that it would go to zero, correct? because than f=f(1-1/P(n)) and f goes away, so you're left with -1/P(infinity)=0, which checks
Ok here's the problem:
Using wolfram the first 100 results are these
heres a plot of a couple points
As you can see it doesn't seem to be approaching exactly zero, even though its very similar to 1/x (exactly the same if you replace Pn with just n)
Is there any way to prove whether this...