so should I integrate the (psi*)(psi) between 0 and pi/8 or first -infinity to infinity and then plug the 0 and pi/8, and how can I integrate this?
so the integral becomes: integrate(A(e^ix)+(e^-ix)) ??
A wave function (psi) equals A(exp(ix)+exp(-ix) in the region -pi<x<pi and zero elsewhere.
Normalize the wave function and find the probability of the particle being between x=0 and pi/8
Equation is : the integral of psi*(x,t)psi(x,t)=1 for normalization