Recent content by singh101

yes that was the thing that confused me because when setting up the question I put all the tension pointing upwards, however when I got the solution one of the tensions was point downwards.

So for a pulley the tension will always point away from the pulley.

My question is how come the tension in pulley 2 is pointing downwards. I was under the impression that tension always points away from the mass.

Oh ok thank you so much I understand where I made the mistake.

oh ok so 5rev/s can be converted into rad by multiplying it by 2pi which gives is 10pi rad/s. This then in added to the formula v=rw. so w is 10pi x 0.4. which gives us 4pi. This is then put into the formula v^2/r (4pi)^2/0.4= 40m/s^2. Am I correct?

Oh wait I think I figured out my mistake. The 5 revolutions per second is the frequency am I correct? How would that be stated as a period

my question is that is 2pi the angle of rotation or is that the angular velocity.

So my initial understanding is that it completes 5 revolutions per second. I converted the 5 rev to radians, so each revolution is 2pi. Now since I got angle of rotation I can plug it into the angular velocity formula which is Angular velocity= angle of rotation/ time. However since I don't have...

3 m?

I am think its the orange spot on beam right next the child.

Attached below is the answer key. I understand how to set up the equation and solve the question. But the part which confused me is the 1.5 which is right next to Mg. My question is why is the 1.5 length used rather than the entire length of 4.5 on the left side. I seem to get stuck on that...

the problem is I don't know what to write for the R for the torque acting on the left side of the beam. I know the Force will be MxG which is 40 x 10= 400 so that lead me to write 400(r)-500(r)=0 The answer we are trying to find is the r which relates to the 50. But I am confused on what the r...

sorry I am a little confused is their anyway you can show this on a piece of paper?