yes that was the thing that confused me because when setting up the question I put all the tension pointing upwards, however when I got the solution one of the tensions was point downwards.
oh ok so 5rev/s can be converted into rad by multiplying it by 2pi which gives is 10pi rad/s. This then in added to the formula v=rw. so w is 10pi x 0.4. which gives us 4pi. This is then put into the formula v^2/r (4pi)^2/0.4= 40m/s^2. Am I correct?
So my initial understanding is that it completes 5 revolutions per second. I converted the 5 rev to radians, so each revolution is 2pi. Now since I got angle of rotation I can plug it into the angular velocity formula which is Angular velocity= angle of rotation/ time. However since I don't have...
Attached below is the answer key. I understand how to set up the equation and solve the question. But the part which confused me is the 1.5 which is right next to Mg. My question is why is the 1.5 length used rather than the entire length of 4.5 on the left side. I seem to get stuck on that...
the problem is I don't know what to write for the R for the torque acting on the left side of the beam. I know the Force will be MxG which is 40 x 10= 400 so that lead me to write 400(r)-500(r)=0 The answer we are trying to find is the r which relates to the 50. But I am confused on what the r...