In this connection, I want to know what happens when the particle is not being observed although light is shone at it the same way as if it were being observed. Does the wave function collapse take place in such a case?
What happens when the experiment isn't being observed, although light is shone on the particles? Does the collapse take place in absence of human observers?
And thanks for that suggestion, Bcrowell
Dear Dr. Chinese,
I also want to know if there any precedence where the “wave-function collapse” has occurred even in the ABSENCE of an observer (simply because light was shown on the particle, although NO ONE WAS PEEPING)?
Scientists/Physicists/Truth-seekers,
I am looking for answers to some questions, which I confess are issues of gobbledygook debates. But this time I want serious and simple answers. So no debates please. My questions are as under:-
Is wave-function collapse a REAL incident or just a...
The "delayed choice" double-slit experiment seem to suggest that a measurement done, in the present, is able to change the past (history) of a particle. Does it imply that a cause arising in the future can change the past? If not what else does it mean?
In our common sense view of causality...
In this context I would like to point out that the "delayed choice" double-slit experiment seem to suggest that a measurement done, in the present, is able to change the past (history) of a particle. So, evidently a cause arising in the future can change the past.
In our common sense view of...
If that is true, it will have immense implications on our understanding and way of reasoning. If there is no causality, it would mean that you could no longer say that the effect is dependent on the cause. It could just be the other way round, i.e. the cause depends on the effect. That would...
Entangled particles seem to have 'causal impact' on each other 'instantly' violating the allowed speed-limit of causal influence i.e. 'c'. When one of the entangled particles is measured it has an impact on the other instantly. These two events (i.e. 1. the measurement of the first particle and...
What you said about information transfer is allright. But what about the "causal influence". I mean, when one of the entangled particles is measured, it has an "effect" on the other particle (instantly). The measurement of the first particle, "causes" this impact. So the two events (1...
Quantum Entanglement allows spatially separated entangled particles to have impact on each other instantly (overcoming the allowed speed-limit of causal influence which is 'c'). How does Quantum Field Theory address this problem (protecting causality and chronology)?
According to General Relativity, gravity is not a force. It arises from the curvature of space-time due to presence of matter. Matter curves space-time in a way that the paths of things appear to be bent giving rise to th effects of gravitiation.
But if gravity is not a force, why do we need...
In QM surely the question about position is meaningless. But then, why do they say that QM and Relativity are incompatible?
Relativity shows that things traveling at the velocity of light must have the same velocity for all reference frames. QM suggests that they do not have a precise...