Recent content by Subhra

It's not true. See Heaviside's electrodynamics. Whether it is a single moving charge or a current in a wire, it will create a magnetic field which will move a stationary charge. This means there should be a mathematical way to describe v=v(B).

This is not my answer. However, it seems from your reply that the particle at rest will certainly move under a magnetic field. You may argue that the motion is due to the electric field of the charged particle creating the magnetic field. Now create the magnetic field using a permanent...

I think, you are focused on the magnetic force only. But a moving charge also has an electric field. This means if you have a magnetic field there should be an electric field associated with the particle causing the magnetic field. Under this electric field, the rest charge should experience a...

If v1=0, F1=0 from the above equation. There is no problem in it. But if B2!=0, v2!=0. Then will the charge q2 exert a force on q1 or not?

What about the force of q2 (moving with v2) on q1(even if v1=0)?

So a charge in motion creates a static magnetic field. Now in this static field place a static charge and forget about the field. Look only a charge (creator of the magnetic field) in motion and a charge at rest and tell me whether the charge at rest will experience a force or not.

So a stationary charged particle will not experience any force near a current element.

I am sorry, I used the term "uniform" loosely. You are right in this regard. Can you please clarify, how does the magnetic force vanish?

Then tell me whether the magnetic field in Biot-Savart law is "static".

Whether you say "it will be in motion" or "magnetic field of a charge is proportional to its velocity" doesn't make any difference. The first phrase indicates the state of motion and the second phrase indicates the velocity dependence. So, Biot-Savart law is about creating its own B field due...

The question is very simple. I repeat: According to Biot-Savart Law if there be a charge in motion, it will create a magnetic field. (Look into Heaviside's electrodynamics to confirm the existence of this law for point charges). If the motion be uniform, the magnetic field will be static, else...

So, according to you a charge at rest will remain at rest even if there be a magnetic field?

The point is misunderstood here. Let's have a magnet at point A. Now put a charge at point B near A. Now come to the question: Will the charge move?

Due to the cross product, there might not be any unique solution for the velocity of the charged particle. Yes, I agree to it. If this is so, there should be at least one non-zero value of the velocity. I don't find any way to "invert" the Biot-Savart Law MATHEMATICALLY and that's why I didn't...

I know this trick of vector product. But this won't resolve the problem. The problem is still on the causality relationship: A->B => If A then B; A<->B=> A->B and B->A. Therefore, my question is still: Will there be a motion of a charge in magnetic field (according to Biot-Savart Law)?