Difficult question. According to my idea of a "perfect theory", "perfect" certainly implies "unfalsifiable". About the converse I am not certain. I think you are right that my definition of a perfect theory implies the converse - hence a theory is Unfalsifiable if and only if it is Perfect...
Arildno, you said it better than I could. Wave, I suspect we only disagree on terminology. From my side I would appreciate if we could agree that the attribute "perfect" for a theory implies that no counterexample to the theory is possible in whichever sense. If a contradicition is possible...
Time is the word for the transformation that maps one state (viewed as a set) of the universe onto the next, i.e. the (mathematical) transformation that connects the states of the universe.
wave, i am not using the term "perfect theory" lightly. If a theory "all ravens are black" is truly blessed with the term "perfect" (i.e. no counterexample exists or will ever exist), no exception is possible, not even logically. Agree? I argue that we will never know when we hit the perfect...
A scientific law or theory is "falsifiable" if one can show that an exception to the law or theory is logically possible. Hence there cannot be any "perfect" or "final" scientific theory, since per definition it would not be falsifiable - that is if we accept Popper's idea of a proper...
A finite number of particles may not be enough to invoke Poincare Recurrence. In infinite space, although there may be finite matter, it may not be clear how to model the universe to fit his requirement for a measure-preserving dynamical system with finite measure. Or is it?
Hi. Maybe I don't understand Popper correctly. He says that a proper scientific theory should be falsifiable. Now, let's suppose that there is a perfect scientific "ultimate" theory explaining all physical phenomena accurately. Is this theory falsifiable? Does it then pass the test for a...
I need to understand a certain characterization of Frobenius' Theorem, part of which contains the following statement:
\nabla_{[a}\xi_{b]}=\xi_{[a}v_{b]} for some dual vector field v_{b} if and only if \xi_{[a}\nabla_{b}\xi_{c]}=0, where \xi^a\xi_a\neq 0.
Is it obvious, or difficult to prove...