Recent content by u5022494

@ SteveL27, How would i go about proving those? perhaps an example would help considerably, What i was thinking was that i could set V := {v1, v2, ... , vn} where each V is a function which maps R -> R and thus an element of V, but i can't quite get a rigorous proof using this notation..

I know that a set (let's call it V) of all functions which map (R -> R) is a vector space under the usual multiplication and addition of real numbers, but i am having trouble proving it, i understand that the zero vector is f(x)=0, do i just have to prove that each element of V remains in V...