I have a past paper question from statistical physics:
By assuming that ##\hbar^2 k^2=p^2##, I arrived at the result:
The interparticle spacing, ##a^3 =\frac{V}{N}## is
$$ a^3 >> e^{-\frac{p^2}{2mk_B T}} \lambda_{deB}^3$$
Is my assumption correct? and does the result complete the purpose of...
oh I get it,
$$\int{p(x) dx} = \frac{1}{2\Phi} (arctan(\frac{x+\delta x}{D})-arctan(\frac{x}{D}))$$
if that is right, we would then differentiate it..
but what about the \delta x ? How do we take care of that?
for $$arctan(\frac{x}{D})$$
it is $$\frac{D}{D^2+x^2}$$
but why do we need the derivative?
also, for small delta x, the expression is 0, isn't it?
(Edit:sorry for messing up the variables again, I typed small d's before)
Nice posting to you again :approve:
Actually I have got the lecture notes, in which it tells the meaning, but I don't understand it:
"Consider a distribution with average value μ and standard deviation σ from which a sample measurements are taken, i.e.
\mu = \left\langle x \right\rangle...
All of that is correct, just that the last two statements are not in the question (not that I disagree with them), and \theta is only mentioned (1) in the hint and (2) in d = D tan(θ)
But the hint says exactly as mentioned in OP.