Help with Time-Independent Perturbation Theory "Good" States Proof

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the proof of expressing the state Ψ_{γ}(0) as a linear combination of the orthogonal states Ψ_{a}^{0} and Ψ_{b}^{0} in the context of Time-Independent Perturbation Theory as outlined in Chapter 7 of "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths. The user initially struggles with the apparent contradiction between the orthogonality of the states and their ability to span the space due to their distinct eigenvalues. Through clarification, it is established that since Ψ_{a}^{0} and Ψ_{b}^{0} are linearly independent eigenvectors, they indeed span the space, allowing for the representation of Ψ_{γ}(0) as a linear combination of these states.

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  • Understanding of Time-Independent Perturbation Theory
  • Familiarity with linear algebra concepts, particularly linear independence and orthogonality
  • Knowledge of eigenvectors and eigenvalues in quantum mechanics
  • Proficiency in interpreting quantum mechanics proofs, specifically from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the concept of linear combinations in quantum mechanics
  • Review the properties of eigenvectors and eigenvalues in the context of quantum states
  • Learn about the implications of degeneracy in quantum systems
  • Examine additional examples of Time-Independent Perturbation Theory proofs for deeper understanding
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Students and self-learners in quantum mechanics, particularly those studying Time-Independent Perturbation Theory and seeking clarity on the relationships between orthogonal states and their linear combinations.

AT_saavedra
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Homework Statement
Please refer to the attached file.
I am trying to make sense of the last part of the "good" states proof.
Relevant Equations
Please refer to the attached file.
(Disclaimer: this is not a HW question. I am self-studying, and this felt like the type of question I've seen in this forum. If there is somewhere better for me to share this doubt, please let me know and I'll transfer it right away.)
I am currently reviewing Chapter 7 of Introduction to QM by Griffiths. I have been stuck for an hour or so trying to understand the last paragraph of this proof (pls check the attached file). It claims that we can express Ψ_{γ}(0) as a linear combination of Ψ_{a}^{0} and Ψ_{b}^{0} but right before that the proof just showed that they are orthogonal states. Just from the very basics of linear algebra these two statements seem incompatible to me.

I know there must be some error in my interpretation since the contradiction is too clear not to have been caught by the third version of the book, but despite reviewing the chapter once again, as well as my linear algebra book, I am still completely stuck. If someone could help me get out of this hole I have made for myself, I would deeply appreciate it.
 

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If ##\gamma = \mu##, then you don’t necessarily have ##\langle \psi_a^0 , \psi_\gamma (0) \rangle = 0##.
 
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Thank you for your answer. I now see what I was misinterpreting. If I could ask a quick follow-up question, am I correct in assuming that ##\psi_\gamma(0)## is a linear combination of ##\psi_a^0## and ##\psi_b^0## because ##\psi_a^0## and ##\psi_b^0## are two distinct eigenvectors with distinct eigenvalues so they must span the space? (since the theorem is dealing with 2nd order degeneracy)
 
To show that ##\psi_a^0## and ##\psi_b^0## span the space, we must prove they are linearly independent. Suppose

\begin{align*}
\kappa \psi_a^0 + \zeta \psi_b^0 = 0.
\end{align*}

Applying ##A## gives

\begin{align*}
\kappa \mu \psi_a^0 + \zeta \nu \psi_b^0 = 0.
\end{align*}

Subtracting ##\mu (\kappa \psi_a^0 + \zeta \psi_b^0) = 0## from this yields

\begin{align*}
\zeta (\nu - \mu) \psi_b^0 = 0.
\end{align*}

Since ##\mu \ne \nu##, it follows that ##\zeta = 0##, and hence ##\kappa = 0##.
 
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julian said:
To show that ##\psi_a^0## and ##\psi_b^0## span the space, we must prove they are linearly independent. Suppose

\begin{align*}
\kappa \psi_a^0 + \zeta \psi_b^0 = 0.
\end{align*}

Applying ##A## gives

\begin{align*}
\kappa \mu \psi_a^0 + \zeta \nu \psi_b^0 = 0.
\end{align*}

Subtracting ##\mu (\kappa \psi_a^0 + \zeta \psi_b^0) = 0## from this yields

\begin{align*}
\zeta (\nu - \mu) \psi_b^0 = 0.
\end{align*}

Since ##\mu \ne \nu##, it follows that ##\zeta = 0##, and hence ##\kappa = 0##.
Thank you very much, your answer was very thorough
 
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