- #1

Viona

- 49

- 12

- Homework Statement
- Why the first-order correction equals 1 instead of arbitrary constant?

- Relevant Equations
- Why the first-order correction equals 1 instead of arbitrary constant?

I was reading in the Book: Introduction to Quantum Mechanics by David J. Griffiths. In chapter Time-Dependent Perturbation Theory, Section 9.12. I could not understand that why he put the first order correction c

_{a}^{(1)}(t)=1 while it equals a constant.