Covectors not identical with 1-forms?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the distinction between scalar-valued 1-forms and covector-valued 0-forms within the context of Einstein-Cartan theory, particularly in relation to torsion in a manifold. Participants explore the implications of these definitions and their interactions in mathematical structures.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the difference between scalar-valued 1-forms and covector-valued 0-forms, suggesting they may be represented by the same components in a 4D manifold.
  • Another participant defines a covector-valued 0-form as a function that provides a linear functional for each argument, asserting that a scalar-valued 1-form is indeed a covector.
  • A third participant emphasizes the importance of understanding how these objects interact rather than focusing solely on their set-theoretic representations, noting that while they may be isomorphic, their behavior under operations like the exterior derivative can differ significantly.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on whether scalar-valued 1-forms and covector-valued 0-forms are identical or distinct, with no consensus reached on the implications of these differences.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights potential ambiguities in definitions and the need for clarity regarding the interactions of these mathematical objects, but does not resolve these issues.

pellman
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I came across the following statement in this often-referenced paper on Einstein-Cartan theory (3rd page, right-hand column):

"In a space with torsion it matters whether one considers the potential of the electromagnetic field to be a scalar-valued 1-form or a covector-valued 0-form."

.. and the author then proceeds to list the resulting different behavior of torsion.

However, I am unaware of any difference between scalar-valued 1-forms and covector-valued 0-forms. In a 4d manifold are not both represented by the same four components? Are not both identical to the dual of the tangent vectors?

Perhaps I am not clear on the meaning of these terms. Can anyone here clarify the difference, if any, between a "scalar-valued 1-form" and a "covector-valued 0-form"?
 
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a "covector-vector valued 0-form" is a function that gives you a linear functional ( or a covector ) for each argument. A scalar valued 1-form is a covector.

So, if f is my 0-form, and L is a covector, f( x ) = L where f( x ) ( v ) = L ( v ) [ where L itself is a scalar valued 1-form, so that L(v) is a scalar ]
 
The trick is you've focused too much on what an object "is" (really, what a set-theoretic representation of the object is), and forgotten to pay attention to how it interacts with other things.

Covector fields, covector-valued 0-forms, 1-forms, and scalar-valued 0-forms are all naturally isomorphic sorts of objects (and maybe literally the same, depending on your choice of realizations of these ideas), but we have different types of objects associated to the different ideas.

For example:
  1. The exterior derivative acts on a 1-form to give a 2-form.
  2. The connection induced by the exterior derivative acts on a scalar-valued 1-form to give a scalar-valued 2-form.
  3. A connection on the cotangent bundle acts on a covector-valued 0-form to give a covector-valued 1-form
While I'm pretty sure 1 and 2 give the essentially same thing, the third may give something very different.
 
I will ponder this a while. Thanks, guys.
 

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