Unruh effect = Hawking effect?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the relationship between the Unruh effect and the Hawking effect within the context of quantum field theory (QFT) in curved spacetime. Participants explore whether these phenomena can be considered equivalent through the lens of the equivalence principle, while also seeking clarity on their similarities and differences.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions if the Unruh and Hawking effects are essentially the same by invoking the equivalence principle.
  • Another participant asserts that it is widely agreed that the effects are different but similar in many respects, referencing a paper that supports this view.
  • A participant seeks clarification on the precise aspects that differentiate the two effects and requests a clear analysis.
  • There is mention of a discussion on the differences being related to different frames of reference.
  • Connections between the Unruh and Hawking effects are noted, particularly regarding Rindler spacetime and its implications for understanding black hole and cosmological horizons.
  • A participant inquires about the existence of analogue systems for the Unruh effect, similar to those for Hawking radiation.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that the Unruh and Hawking effects are different, though they share similarities. However, the precise nature of these differences and similarities remains contested and unresolved.

Contextual Notes

Participants reference various papers and external sources, indicating that there may be limitations in the clarity of definitions and analyses regarding the two effects. The discussion also highlights the dependence on specific frames of reference and the implications of Rindler spacetime.

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Hello everybody,

I am currently studying QFT on curved spacetime and I got puzzled about the question:

Are Unruh and Hawking effect just the same by invoking the equivalence principle?

I found ambiguous statements and this paper contributed to it. http://arxiv.org/pdf/1102.5564v2.pdf

Is anybody here who knows details, can refer any good paper, argumentation?

Thanks in advance!
 
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It is widely agreed that they are different (but in many respects similar) effects, and the paper you mention confirms it.

By the way, I have another question which someone might be able to answer. There are many examples of condensed-matter ANALOGUE Hawking radiation, but is there a similar ANALOGUE Unruh effect?
 
Thanks Demystifier,
but in which precise aspects are they different and in which similar? Is there a clear analysis somewhere available?
 
A lot of the 'differences' seem related to different frames of reference...

We had a rather good discussion here:

https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=574548

with some interesting links.

And Wikipedia offers this:

..The Rindler spacetime has a horizon, and locally any non-extremal black hole horizon is Rindler. So the Rindler spacetime gives the local properties of black holes and cosmological horizons. The Unruh effect would then be the near-horizon form of the Hawking radiation.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unruh_e...interpretation
[This link no longer seems to work??]

Some connections between Unruh and Hawking effects are mentioned here:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hawking_radiation
 
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