Unruh effect = Hawking effect?

[complement]

Hello everybody,

I am currently studying QFT on curved spacetime and I got puzzled about the question:

Are Unruh and Hawking effect just the same by invoking the equivalence principle?

I found ambiguous statements and this paper contributed to it. http://arxiv.org/pdf/1102.5564v2.pdf

Is anybody here who knows details, can refer any good paper, argumentation?

Thanks in advance!

 

[Demystifier]

It is widely agreed that they are different (but in many respects similar) effects, and the paper you mention confirms it.

By the way, I have another question which someone might be able to answer. There are many examples of condensed-matter ANALOGUE Hawking radiation, but is there a similar ANALOGUE Unruh effect?

 

[complement]

Thanks Demystifier,
but in which precise aspects are they different and in which similar? Is there a clear analysis somewhere available?

 

[Demystifier]

See e.g. the classic paper
http://prd.aps.org/abstract/PRD/v14/i4/p870_1

 

[Naty1]

A lot of the 'differences' seem related to different frames of reference...

We had a rather good discussion here:

https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=574548

with some interesting links.

And Wikipedia offers this:

..The Rindler spacetime has a horizon, and locally any non-extremal black hole horizon is Rindler. So the Rindler spacetime gives the local properties of black holes and cosmological horizons. The Unruh effect would then be the near-horizon form of the Hawking radiation.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unruh_e...interpretation
[This link no longer seems to work??]

Some connections between Unruh and Hawking effects are mentioned here:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hawking_radiation