- #1
gerald V
- 67
- 3
In the formula for the Unruh effect, temperature (of a photon gas mostly) is proportional to the acceleration of some classical observer. But how can that be? Temperature is a scalar, while acceleration is a vector.
The cause of the effect obviously preferres one spatial direction, and Rindler coordinates reflect that. I have looked into an article explaining the Unruh effect in some detail (https://arxiv.org/pdf/1304.2833.pdf). This article explicitely states to restrict itself to 1+1 – dimensional spacetime, and so do some other sources I found.
So, for the Unruh experiment taking place in our full spacetime, what is the distribution of the photons in 3-dimensional position space as well as in 3-dimensional momentum space?
In contrast, Hawking temperature appears as quite plausible to me. But I assume that for black holes which are not spherically symmetric, i.e. rotating ones, temperature varies over the latitude. Is that right?
Thank you in advance for any answers.
The cause of the effect obviously preferres one spatial direction, and Rindler coordinates reflect that. I have looked into an article explaining the Unruh effect in some detail (https://arxiv.org/pdf/1304.2833.pdf). This article explicitely states to restrict itself to 1+1 – dimensional spacetime, and so do some other sources I found.
So, for the Unruh experiment taking place in our full spacetime, what is the distribution of the photons in 3-dimensional position space as well as in 3-dimensional momentum space?
In contrast, Hawking temperature appears as quite plausible to me. But I assume that for black holes which are not spherically symmetric, i.e. rotating ones, temperature varies over the latitude. Is that right?
Thank you in advance for any answers.