Why does everything have a natural frequency at which it oscillates when struck by a single force and then left to oscillate?
Not
everything has a natural frequency. For an object to have a natural frequency of oscillation, it has to be submitted to a very special kind of force (and I'm not talking about the force that "struck" the object before leaving it to oscillate, I'm talking about the force of the spring or the analogous). It has to be submited to a force that has a
stable equilibrium position, i.e. there must be a position in space at which the object experiences no force and also such that when the object is displaced to the left, the force pushes it to the right, and when displaced to the right, the force pushes it to the left. For any such force applied to an object, if we consider small enough displacements of the object, the movement will be to a good approximation what we call
simple harmonic, i.e. described to a good degree of accuracy by
x(t) = Acos(\omega t)
where A is the amplitude of oscillation and \omega is the angular frequency of oscillation, or what we call the
natual frequency.
Does everything only have one?
The natural frequency of an object does not depend on the object itself as much as it depends on the force acting on it. It is possible that an object be submited to a force that allows multiple stable equilibrium points. In this case, the object has a natural frequency that depends "around" which equilibrium point it is oscillating.
Does it vary depending on what the original force to cause it to oscillate was?
No.
Also, why does force imposed at natural frequency casue the amplitude to build up? (ie - cause resonance?)
I don't know of a simple answer to that.